The sequence a1, a2, ... , a99 has a1 = a3 = a5 = ... = a97 = 1, a2 = a4 = a6 = ... = a98 = 2, and a99 = 3. We interpret subscripts greater than 99 by subtracting 99, so that a100 means a1 etc. An allowed move is to change the value of any one of the an to another member of {1, 2, 3} different from its two neighbors, an-1 and an+1. Is there a sequence of allowed moves which results in am = am+2 = ... = am+96 = 1, am+1 = am+3 = ... = am+95 = 2, am+97 = 3, an+98 = 2 for some m? [So if m = 1, we have just interchanged the values of a98 and a99.]
Solution
This is a classic invariant problem. We strongly suspect that there is no sequence of moves (otherwise it would be too easy to find), so that we must prove there is no sequence. The standard approach is to look for some invariant which is not changed by the allowed moves, but which is different for the initial and desired final positions.
For each member ai of the sequence let bi =
0 if ai = ai+1,
1 if (ai, ai+1) = (1, 2) , (2, 3) or (3, 1)
-1 if (ai, ai+1) = (1, 3), (2, 1) or (3, 2).
We hope that b1 + b2 + ... + b99will be a suitable invariant. Suppose we make an allowed move by changing ai. That has the effect of changing just bi-1 and bi. If ai-1 = ai+1, then bi-1 + bi = 0, so the total of the bj does not change. If ai-1 does not equal ai+1, then we cannot change ai since it must be different from both. Thus allowed moves do not change b1 + ... + b99. So it is an invariant. We now check it is suitable. The initial value is + 3 (there are 49 pairs (1,2), 48 pairs (2,1), 1 pair (2,3) and 1 pair (3,1) total 49 - 48 + 1 + 1 = 3. But the desired final position has value -3 (it has 48 pairs (1, 2), 49 pairs (2, 1), 1 pair (1, 3) and 1 pair (3, 2), total 48 - 49 - 1 - 1 = - 3). So we cannot get from one to the other by allowed moves.
© John Scholes
jscholes@kalva.demon.co.uk
23 Aug 2002