35th IMO 1994 shortlist

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Problem N6

Define the sequence a1, a2, a3, ... as follows. a1 and a2 are coprime positive integers and an+2 = an+1an + 1. Show that for every m > 1 there is an n > m such that amm divides ann. Is it true that a1 must divide ann for some n > 1?

 

Solution

Answer: no.

Let p be any prime divisor of ai. Let un be the residue of an mod p. So un+2 = un+1un mod p. Since there are only finitely many pairs (un+1, un), the sequence un must be eventually periodic. We claim that it is periodic from n = i. Suppose not, so that the first two periods are us, us+1, ... , us+t-1 (first complete period), us+t, ... , us+2t-1 (second complete period) with s > i as small as possible and all terms in the periods not equal to ui and hence non-zero. Then usus-1 = us+1 - 1 = us+1+t - 1 = us+tus+t-1. But since us = us+t is non-zero, we may divide to get us-1 = us-1+t. So it is periodic from s-1, contradicting the minimality of s. So for some integer k(p) we have ui+n k(p) = 0 for all n.

Now take all the primes p that divide ai and let m be the lcm of the corresponding k(p). Then ui+nm = 0 for all n and p, so every prime dividing ai divides ai+nm for n = 1, 2, 3, ... . Let the highest exponent of any prime p that divides ai be r. Take n sufficiently large so that i + nm > ri. Then aii divides ai+nmi+nm.

Take a1 = 22, a2 = 9. We find that the sequence un for the prime 2 is 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, ... so an is even iff n = 1 mod 3. For the prime 11 the sequence is 0, 9, 1, 10, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 7, 0, ... so for n > 1, an is divisible by 11 iff n = 5 mod 6. But we cannot have n = 1 mod 3 and 5 mod 6, so there is no j > 1 with a1 dividing ajj.

 


 

35th IMO shortlist 1994

© John Scholes
jscholes@kalva.demon.co.uk
18 Sep 2002